If I may, I have a Illegal Lease Clause question, and since there's evidently so much knowledge on this thread I
won't make another one, here goes:
A friend of mine signed a 1year lease on an apartment in Toronto containing a clause that he could not assign or
sub lease the apartment, after a late payment (later paid) he suggests to his landlord he could sublease, and gets an
email from the landlord's agent saying that is against the agreement and he could get sued.
Later I heard about the situation during my due diligence reading of the entire Landlord Tenant Act, (prior to my first investment), I realized something was not right here.
I called the LTB and confirmed the Act supersedes any lease agreements, and that he should submit an A2, but when he called, they just told him he could give 30 days and be on his merry way.
This where I am confused, does he not need to submit an application to the board ? The landlord did not object to
the 30 days, but maybe he is applying to the board on his end as we speak?
I greatly appreciate any input
Thanks