- Joined
- Dec 5, 2007
- Messages
- 2,880
Hi All,
From REIN discussions on the topic, my understanding is that in the case of a classic JV deal, management costs are paid to investor #1.
Assuming there is an active investor #1 and a passive investor #2, say #2 doesn`t even live in Canada so can not manage any aspect of
the deal and/or property.
I understand 10% is a common management cost. I believe Thomas, too, mentioned around 10% of monthly rent as being reasonable.
(another good rule is annual payment of 1% of asset value). Let`s assume 10% of rent and that it is an 8-plex for example.
My question is should this arrangement still allow investor #1, who is being paid 10%, to hire a property management company in the future??
If/when he does that, what is most common/fair – that he still gets 10% but now will have to pay the property management company FROM
THE 10% HE GETS, AND KEEP THE REST TO HIMSELF, if there is anything left!? Well, he will still have to manage the
property manager, bookkeeping, etc. Remember investor #2 does not even live in Canada.
I am assuming the 10% mentioned in REIN discussions is NOT in addition to any property management fees but should include everything from
investor #2`s point of view. Therefore, suggested the above.. not sure(?) my question is not regarding the number - should it be 8% or 10%.
My question is what should the management cost, paid to investor #1 out of cash flow, include? and what are his options in the future?
Of course everything is negotiable, just wanted other investors` opinions as to what is fair and realistic.
THANKS,
Neil
From REIN discussions on the topic, my understanding is that in the case of a classic JV deal, management costs are paid to investor #1.
Assuming there is an active investor #1 and a passive investor #2, say #2 doesn`t even live in Canada so can not manage any aspect of
the deal and/or property.
I understand 10% is a common management cost. I believe Thomas, too, mentioned around 10% of monthly rent as being reasonable.
(another good rule is annual payment of 1% of asset value). Let`s assume 10% of rent and that it is an 8-plex for example.
My question is should this arrangement still allow investor #1, who is being paid 10%, to hire a property management company in the future??
If/when he does that, what is most common/fair – that he still gets 10% but now will have to pay the property management company FROM
THE 10% HE GETS, AND KEEP THE REST TO HIMSELF, if there is anything left!? Well, he will still have to manage the
property manager, bookkeeping, etc. Remember investor #2 does not even live in Canada.
I am assuming the 10% mentioned in REIN discussions is NOT in addition to any property management fees but should include everything from
investor #2`s point of view. Therefore, suggested the above.. not sure(?) my question is not regarding the number - should it be 8% or 10%.
My question is what should the management cost, paid to investor #1 out of cash flow, include? and what are his options in the future?
Of course everything is negotiable, just wanted other investors` opinions as to what is fair and realistic.
THANKS,
Neil