Greetings All,
A unit I am seriously considering purchasing has a new furnace installed in late 2007 by the local utility company. It was financed over 84 months by the incumbent owner. What are my options here: should I fully assume the lease to own, split 60/40 or ?/? with the seller; work it into the selling price or inform the seller that I am not liable for any debts she encountered whilst she owned the unit? What if the lease to own is not assumable? Thank you in advance for your input.
Debe
A unit I am seriously considering purchasing has a new furnace installed in late 2007 by the local utility company. It was financed over 84 months by the incumbent owner. What are my options here: should I fully assume the lease to own, split 60/40 or ?/? with the seller; work it into the selling price or inform the seller that I am not liable for any debts she encountered whilst she owned the unit? What if the lease to own is not assumable? Thank you in advance for your input.
Debe