- Joined
- Feb 5, 2009
- Messages
- 2
I`m currently living in a condo in downtown Edmonton, and am in the process of buying a new house. I`ve decided to rent the condo rather than sell, but in order to do this I need the equity from it as a down-payment on the new house. I have determined through exhaustive web research and a few calls with the CRA that if I refinance my condo and use the money to buy a new personal residence, the loan would not be tax-deductible. In general, the interest on a mortgage, HELOC, or other loan is only deductible if the borrowed money is directly used to purchase a rental property.
Paragraph 15 of bulletin IT533 says that a taxpayer may restructure borrowings and the ownership of assets to meet the direct use test. I interpret this to mean that I am free to manipulate the ownership of the condo in order to meet the direct use test, or in other words, I am allowed to gift the condo to my fiancée and buy it back with a loan. Unfortunately, this will incur additional expenses, but at least I would satisfy the direct use test.
Do you agree that this strategy should make the interest on the mortgage tax-deductible?
Is the CRA going to view this gifting/buying back as if the property was never transferred (treat it like a re-finance)?
Do you think this could this be considered some form of tax-evasion, or is it legit?
Do you know of anyone else who has done something similar, or any court cases where a ruling was made on a similar situation?
Paragraph 15 of bulletin IT533 says that a taxpayer may restructure borrowings and the ownership of assets to meet the direct use test. I interpret this to mean that I am free to manipulate the ownership of the condo in order to meet the direct use test, or in other words, I am allowed to gift the condo to my fiancée and buy it back with a loan. Unfortunately, this will incur additional expenses, but at least I would satisfy the direct use test.
Do you agree that this strategy should make the interest on the mortgage tax-deductible?
Is the CRA going to view this gifting/buying back as if the property was never transferred (treat it like a re-finance)?
Do you think this could this be considered some form of tax-evasion, or is it legit?
Do you know of anyone else who has done something similar, or any court cases where a ruling was made on a similar situation?