- Joined
- Dec 5, 2007
- Messages
- 2,880
Hi Everyone,
Closing is tomorrow. The seller provided her lawyer with a false tenant acknowledgement showing there is NO last month rent deposit. (she somehow made the tenant sign that). I called the tenant and in reality the tenant did provide a last month rent and has a receipt from 1998 to prove that. Apparently, what happened is the seller manipulated the tenant into signing an acknowledgement saying she did not provide last month rent. The reason is the seller herself was not credited for that amount when she purchased the property 3 years ago but she knows now that the tenant indeed paid.
My question is, considering the above, should I as a buyer be credited for the last month rent provided by the tenant in order to protect the tenant and myself? My guess is the fact the current seller did not get the amount from the previous seller is HER problem and does NOT allow her not to credit me for the amount. Thoughts?
My lawyer suggested to transfer the amount her lawyer wants which unfortunately does NOT include crediting me for the last month rent, and deal with the amount missing later asking the seller`s lawyer something like to freeze the amount/not give that portion (last month rent) to the seller yet.
I called the tenant and asked her to fax the receipt she has to me so I can provide that to my lawyer first thing in the morning tomorrow.
Am I doing the right thing contacting the tenant before I even own the property? Is there anything else I can do or should have done in this bizarre case!?
Thanks & Regards,
Neil
Closing is tomorrow. The seller provided her lawyer with a false tenant acknowledgement showing there is NO last month rent deposit. (she somehow made the tenant sign that). I called the tenant and in reality the tenant did provide a last month rent and has a receipt from 1998 to prove that. Apparently, what happened is the seller manipulated the tenant into signing an acknowledgement saying she did not provide last month rent. The reason is the seller herself was not credited for that amount when she purchased the property 3 years ago but she knows now that the tenant indeed paid.
My question is, considering the above, should I as a buyer be credited for the last month rent provided by the tenant in order to protect the tenant and myself? My guess is the fact the current seller did not get the amount from the previous seller is HER problem and does NOT allow her not to credit me for the amount. Thoughts?
My lawyer suggested to transfer the amount her lawyer wants which unfortunately does NOT include crediting me for the last month rent, and deal with the amount missing later asking the seller`s lawyer something like to freeze the amount/not give that portion (last month rent) to the seller yet.
I called the tenant and asked her to fax the receipt she has to me so I can provide that to my lawyer first thing in the morning tomorrow.
Am I doing the right thing contacting the tenant before I even own the property? Is there anything else I can do or should have done in this bizarre case!?
Thanks & Regards,
Neil