Hi,
I am a newbie investor and currently looking to make an offer on my first investment property.The property is located in Ontario and currently tenated. The house appears to be in good repair (to be verified by a home inspection, of course) and I was satisfied with the upkeep of the unit. My concern is protecting myself in the event that the tenants are delinquent in rent. I was going to ask for vacant possession and I would perform my own due diligence on the current tenants, then my realtor drafted up an agreement with a clause that I wasn't comfortable with.
It read as follows:
"The buyer and seller hereby agree in the event that the tenant fails to vacate the property prior to the completion of the transaction, the buyer agrees to assume the existing tenant upon completion of this transaction."
I informed him that I was uncomfortable with this and that I saw no need for this to be included. The issue became a bone of contention to my surprise (Still can't understand why).
After much debate we left off with an agreement to take this out and insert conditions for the seller to offer proof of financials instead (e.g bank statements showing monthly deposits to verify the tenants were current with rent as the seller claimed).
The next day when the realtor ran it by his boss, he refused to let him insert that clause into the agreement and insisted that I take vacant possession of the property. Apparently his boss was saying things to the effect of "who's the reator here?", and "he must be a rookie". Why that matters, I am not sure.
After much further discussion, to alleviate my concerns, he stated that he will add another clause stating that if the property is not vacant upon closing, the seller will have 60 days to rectify the issue otherwise the deal is null and void with all deposits returned.
I have yet to see the language as it is being drafted up as I type this post.
My question is twofold.
1) Should I be concerned that the realtor and broker are dictating what the terms and conditions of my offer are going to be? I feel as the buyer, the direction should be coming from me and not from the agent and his broker.
2) Are the clauses mentioned above commonplace in purchase of sale agreements and am I overreacting?
I am trying to "peel the onion" to understand what the real issue is behind this but having difficulty doing so. I'm feeling pressured to agree to terms that I am not entirely comfortable with. Any insight or advice is on the process and how I should proceed is greatly appreciated.
Cheers,
I am a newbie investor and currently looking to make an offer on my first investment property.The property is located in Ontario and currently tenated. The house appears to be in good repair (to be verified by a home inspection, of course) and I was satisfied with the upkeep of the unit. My concern is protecting myself in the event that the tenants are delinquent in rent. I was going to ask for vacant possession and I would perform my own due diligence on the current tenants, then my realtor drafted up an agreement with a clause that I wasn't comfortable with.
It read as follows:
"The buyer and seller hereby agree in the event that the tenant fails to vacate the property prior to the completion of the transaction, the buyer agrees to assume the existing tenant upon completion of this transaction."
I informed him that I was uncomfortable with this and that I saw no need for this to be included. The issue became a bone of contention to my surprise (Still can't understand why).
After much debate we left off with an agreement to take this out and insert conditions for the seller to offer proof of financials instead (e.g bank statements showing monthly deposits to verify the tenants were current with rent as the seller claimed).
The next day when the realtor ran it by his boss, he refused to let him insert that clause into the agreement and insisted that I take vacant possession of the property. Apparently his boss was saying things to the effect of "who's the reator here?", and "he must be a rookie". Why that matters, I am not sure.
After much further discussion, to alleviate my concerns, he stated that he will add another clause stating that if the property is not vacant upon closing, the seller will have 60 days to rectify the issue otherwise the deal is null and void with all deposits returned.
I have yet to see the language as it is being drafted up as I type this post.
My question is twofold.
1) Should I be concerned that the realtor and broker are dictating what the terms and conditions of my offer are going to be? I feel as the buyer, the direction should be coming from me and not from the agent and his broker.
2) Are the clauses mentioned above commonplace in purchase of sale agreements and am I overreacting?
I am trying to "peel the onion" to understand what the real issue is behind this but having difficulty doing so. I'm feeling pressured to agree to terms that I am not entirely comfortable with. Any insight or advice is on the process and how I should proceed is greatly appreciated.
Cheers,